Should you Believe in the Holy Trinity? The View of Jehovah’s Witnesses about the “holy trinity”

by Boyan Mak Mihaylov

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https://orcid.org/0009-0007-6257-1246

Abstract:

Boyan Mak Mihaylov, Should You Believe In The Holy Trinity? The View of Jehovah's Witnesses about the "holy trinity" The Theology Gateway. Sofia: 2022

This research paper critically examines the Jehovah's Witnesses' denial of the Holy Trinity, arguing from their own New World Translation and Kingdom Interlinear Translation that Scripture clearly presents both the divinity of Jesus Christ and the personality of the Holy Spirit. The study demonstrates through exegetical analysis of key passages—including John 1:1-14, Colossians 1:15-20, Hebrews 1:1-3, John 10:22-39, Acts 7:54-60, and Revelation 1:8; 22:12-21—that Jesus Christ is not a created being but the eternal Son who shares the divine nature with the Father. The article further examines the Watchtower's treatment of the Holy Spirit, revealing through Acts 5:3-4, Acts 13:1-4, and John 16:7-15 that the Spirit possesses intellect, will, and personality, and is identified as God. The paper refutes four specific "misconceptions" presented in official JW literature, exposing inconsistencies in the New World Translation's rendering of key texts and demonstrating that the grammatical neuter gender of πνεῦμα does not imply impersonality. The study concludes that the doctrine of the Trinity, though formally codified at Nicaea and Constantinople, is firmly rooted in the New Testament witness and represents the authentic apostolic understanding of God as Father, Son, and Holy Spirit—three persons sharing one divine nature.

Keywords:

Holy Trinity, Jehovah's Witnesses, Jesus Christ, Only-Begotten Son, Firstborn of All Creation, Firstborn from the Dead, the Word, Psalm 91, Ananias and Saphiras, Misconceptions about the Holy Spirit, New World Translation, Divinity of Christ, Personality of the Holy Spirit, Exegesis, Arianism, John 1, Acts 5, Paraclete, Trinitarianism

Introduction

This article is a compilation of two previous articles: "Is Jesus Christ Created and a god? The View of Jehovah's Witnesses (JW) about Jesus Christ"¹ and "What is The Holy Spirit? The View of Jehovah's Witnesses about the holy spirit"². Besides this I added some points.

The JW ask a very legitimate question: "Should you believe in the trinity?". As a Christian believing in the Holy Trinity, I shall try to answer the question with "yes", using only the tools provided for Bible study by jw.org. In my research I will use the JW own Bible translations. These are the New World Translation (NWT) of the Holy Scriptures (Study Edition)³ and the Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures (KI)⁴.

Let us first state the argument that JW have. First, they state that the doctrine of the trinity is formulated in the fourth century:

The Bible was completed in the first century C.E. Teachings that led to the development of the Trinity began to be officially formulated in 325 C.E.—more than two centuries later—at a council in the city of Nicaea in Asia Minor, now Iznik, Turkey. According to the New Catholic Encyclopedia, the creed attributed to the Council of Nicaea set out the first official definition of 'Christian orthodoxy,' including the definition of God and Christ. Why, though, was it deemed necessary to define God and Christ centuries after the Bible was completed? Is the Bible unclear on these important topics?⁵

Second, the JW teaching revolves around the idea that Jesus Christ is a creation of the father, the holy spirit is just "God's power in action, his active force":

The holy spirit is God's power in action, his active force. (Micah 3:8; Luke 1:35) God sends out his spirit by projecting his energy to any place to accomplish his will.—Psalm 104:30; 139:7.⁶

Third, the JW teaching revolves around the idea that it was the emperor Constantine somehow decided to adopt the view of the majority of bishops that that Jesus was "of one substance" (homooousious) with the Father:

Constantine asked the bishops, who may have numbered into the hundreds, to come to a unanimous accord, but his request was in vain. He then proposed that the council adopt the ambiguous notion that Jesus was "of one substance" (homoousios) with the Father. This unbiblical Greek philosophical term laid the foundation for the Trinity doctrine as later set forth in the church creeds. Indeed, by the end of the fourth century, the Trinity had essentially taken the form it has today, including the so-called third part of the godhead, the holy spirit

So the main argument of JW is formed around the divinity of Jesus Christ and the divinity and personality of the Holy Spirit. Let us then study the NWT and KI to see if Jesus Christ is divine and if the holy spirit is a divine person. After this you may answer the question "Should you believe in the holy trinity?" for yourself.

Is Jesus Christ Truly God?

A good starting point is the JW's book "What Can the Bible Teach us?", chapter 4, "Who is Jesus Christ?"⁷

Jehovah's Witnesses believe that Jesus Christ is "the Messiah" but their view differs significantly from the traditional Christian view:

"Many years before Jesus was born, Jehovah promised in the Bible that he would send the Messiah, or Christ. The word "Messiah" comes from the Hebrew language, and the word "Christ" comes from the Greek. Both of these titles mean that God would choose the promised Messiah and give him a special position. The Messiah will make all of God's promises come true."⁸

The article does not give the meaning neither of the word "Christ" nor of the word "Messiah". It just says that "these titles mean that God would choose the promised Messiah and give him a special position". The key phrase here is "special position" as we shall see further. What is so special for the Jehovah's Witnesses about the position? They write:

"11 Jesus is very precious to Jehovah. Why? Because God created him before everything and everyone else. So Jesus is called "the firstborn of all creation." (Colossians 1:15) Jesus is also precious to Jehovah because he is the only one Jehovah created directly. That is why he is called the "only-begotten Son." (John 3:16) Jesus is also the only one Jehovah used to create all other things. (Colossians 1:16) And only Jesus is called "the Word," because Jehovah used him to give messages and instructions to angels and humans.—John 1:14."⁹

What we understand, according to them, is that Jehovah and Jesus are two distinctive persons and Jehovah first of all created Jesus.

The Only-Begotten Son

A simple lookup in their "Kingdom Interlinear Greek Translation" gives the Greek word for only-begotten as μονογενῆ in John 3:16. This word is a Greek adjective which consists of two parts. "μονο" means one or only. "γενῆ" is begotten or child. So the meaning is only begotten or only child. The word says nothing about creation. It gives the relationship between God and the Son as one that is unique, a relationship between a Father and a Son. If John the apostle wanted to say that Jesus is the first creation why didn't he use "first created"? John could explicitly state that the Son is created but he didn't.

Not only this but in our natural everyday language, on human level, when we say "father" and "son" we mean human beings that share the same substance! In our everyday life a father doesn't create his son. He is involved in the transmission of his DNA together with the mother to the child that is conceived. That process is very different than creation. And the first century readers of John would understand that the Son, John is talking about, is of the same substance as the Father.

The Firstborn of All Creation

13 He rescued us from the authority of the darkness and transferred us into the kingdom of his beloved Son, 14 by means of whom we have our release by ransom, the forgiveness of our sins. 15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; 16 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all other things, and by means of him all other things were made to exist, 18 and he is the head of the body, the congregation. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that he might become the one who is first in all things; 19 because God was pleased to have all fullness to dwell in him, 20 and through him to reconcile to himself all other things by making peace through the blood he shed on the torture stake, whether the things on the earth or the things in the heavens. (Colossians 1:13-20, NWT)

When apostle Paul writes Colossians 1:15 he does not use the same Greek word as John. He uses firstborn of all creation or "πρωτότοκος πάσης κτίσεως". Now to what does firstborn (πρωτότοκος) relate to? To the "the image of the invisible God" or to "all creation"? Some translations give firstborn as "Firstborn" meaning that Paul uses this word as a title to God's beloved son. According to the text we understand that:

1. "By means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth" (Colossians 1:16, NWT)
2. "He is before all other things, and by means of him all other things were made to exist" (Colossians 1:17, NWT)

I fully agree that by the Son all things were created. The question arises in the second point. What is the meaning of "He is before all other things"? Does this put the "He" (the Son) on the level of "other things"? As the JW interpret the verse, it seems they compare the creation of things with the creation of the son. But Paul does not do such a comparison! Paul does compare the Son but not with the creation. According to Paul:

1. "He is the image of the invisible God" (Colossians 1:15, NWT)
2. "God was pleased to have all fullness to dwell in him" (Colossians 1:19, NWT)

A very natural interpretation of this text would be then that the Son as the image (εἰκὼν) of the invisible God in whom dwells all fullness (πλήρωμα) is the Creator of all things and is before all things in the sense of being their Creator. This is because the Creator exists on another level different from the creation! The passage speaks about two different planes. First, God and his Son, who is Creator. Second, all other things that are created by the Son.

Paul also uses "firstborn" a second time in Colossians 1:18:

"He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that he might become the one who is first in all things;" (Colossians 1:18, NWT)

The word for firstborn is again πρωτότοκος. Here we again ask two questions:

1. What does "He is the beginning" mean?
2. What does "firstborn from the dead" mean?

The Meaning of "He Is the Beginning"

JW probably would interpret "He is the beginning" as Jesus being the first that is created. But that is not consistent with other parts of the Bible like Genesis 1:1 ("In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth."). The author of Hebrews especially speaks, as Paul, about the creation:

10 And: "At the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the works of your hands. 11 They will perish, but you will remain; and just like a garment, they will all wear out, 12 and you will wrap them up just as a cloak, as a garment, and they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will never come to an end." (Hebrews 1:10-12, NWT)

Here the author of Hebrews quotes Psalm 102:25-27. The psalm begins with the words: "O Jehovah, hear my prayer … " (Psalm 102:1, NWT). As we can see, it is God who creates in Genesis 1:1 and God Jehovah, who is "at the beginning" in Hebrews 1:10! In Revelation 22:13 Jesus Christ is again called "the beginning"!

The most logical interpretation that we are left with is that when Paul writes that the Son is "the beginning" he simply says that the Son is Jehovah! If in Genesis 1:1, Hebrews 1:10 and Revelation 22:13 it is Jehovah, (as we shall see further in the research), who is in the beginning, why should we interpret Colossians 1:18 in a different way? It would make no sense.

Paul could have wrote that Jesus is the first creation instead of firstborn but he did not! The only good explanation is that God and his Son are on one level and all other things are the creation.

The Meaning of "Firstborn from the Dead"

Again here the word firstborn can not be used in the sense of creation! In the New World Translation there is a reference to 1 Corinthians 15:23. To put it in context:

20 But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep in death. 21 For since death came through a man, resurrection of the dead also comes through a man. 22 For just as in Adam all are dying so also in the Christ all will be made alive. 23 But each one in his own proper order: Christ the firstfruits afterward those who belong to the Christ during his presence 24 Next, the end, when he hands over the Kingdom to his God and Father, when he has brought to nothing all government and all authority and power." (1 Corinthians 15:20 – 24, NWT)

1 Corinthians 15:20 explains Colossians 1:18 as Christ "has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep in death". Here Christ is not created but "raised from the death" as Paul writes.

Why Is Jesus Called "the Word"?

Let me quote the book "What the Bible Can Teach Us?" again:

"And only Jesus is called 'the Word,' because Jehovah used him to give messages and instructions to angels and humans.—John 1:14."¹⁰

As they quote John 1:14, I shall now research this passage. Let us begin from the beginning of the Gospel of John:

1 In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was a god. 2 This one was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. What has come into existence 4 by means of him was life, and the life was the light of men. 5 And the light is shining in the darkness but the darkness has not overpowered it." (John 1:1 – 5, NWT)

I would not like to take time for arguments on Bible translation why "the Word was God" is the right translation instead of "the Word was a god" as the NWT has it¹¹. This has little value in my argument. Apostle John says few things here about "the Word":

• "In the beginning was the Word" (John 1:1, NWT)
• "and the Word was with God" (John 1:1, NWT)
• "and the Word was a god" (John 1:1, NWT)
• "This one was in the beginning with God" (John 1:2)

As we know the phrase "In the beginning God created" is used in Genesis 1:1 where it is God Jehovah who creates. But here John says that also in the beginning was the Word not God Jehovah! Did John make some mistake when he wrote John 1:1? Not only this but in the beginning "the Word" exists together with God and is "a god". Just to be sure that John makes no mistake he repeats himself that "This one was in the beginning with God" (John 1:2, NWT). John leaves us without any option that we should believe the Word and God in the beginning coexist! This is a fact from the text.

But now we can interpret the coexistence of the Word and God in two different ways¹².

First, we have the option to believe that God created the Word before the creation and that God and the Word coexisted at the beginning of creation. This is the option that Jehovah's Witnesses choose. In their own words:

"Some people believe that Jesus and God are the same person. But that's not what the Bible teaches. The Bible says that Jesus was created, which means that Jesus had a beginning. But Jehovah, who created all things, had no beginning. (Psalm 90:2) As God's Son, Jesus never thought of trying to be God. The Bible clearly teaches that the Father is greater than the Son. (Read John 14:28; 1 Corinthians 11:3.) Only Jehovah is "God Almighty." (Genesis 17:1) He is the greatest and most powerful person in the universe.—See Endnote 14."¹³

Actually they believe that "Jehovah and his Son, Jesus, worked closely together for billions of years before the heavens and the earth were created."¹⁴ From this we can conclude that, according to them, Jesus preexisted for billions of years before he came to earth. The Jehovah's Witnesses do not give us any information about how they calculated the age of Jesus, any Scripture, any reference!

Second, we have the option to believe that the Word and God eternally coexisted and coexist together and are two divine Persons! This would place the Word and God in one plane of the divine and all other things on the plane of creation.

Which one should we choose? Which interpretation would be more natural to the first century reader of the gospel?

I think that if John the apostle wanted us to know that "the Word" was created he could very simply write it down! John could very simply write how many years before the Creation the Word was created and state it plainly! Why didn't he write "before the beginning the Word was created ..." but instead wrote that "the Word was a god" (NWT) or "the Word was God" (KJV)?

The very simple conclusion to which John is leading us is that the Word and God are Jehovah from Genesis 1:1 as strange as it can sound.

In John 1:14 he continues:

"So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father; and he was full of divine favor and truth." (John 1:14, NWT)

Here again he could state that the Word was created by the father but he didn't. Instead the picture we get is that the Word "was full of divine favor and truth"!

The Father is Greater than the Son? In what Sense?

The book of Watchtower gives us also John 14:28, 1 Corinthians 11:3 and Genesis 17:1 as three texts that should make us believe that the son is not eternal and is created. Let us see now if any of these put in their context really teach that the Son is created by the Father.

25 I have spoken these things to you while I am still with you. 26 But the helper, the holy spirit, which the Father will send in my name, that one will teach you all things and bring back to your minds all the things I told you. 27 I leave you peace; I give you my peace. I do not give it to you the way that the world gives it. Do not let your hearts be troubled nor let them shrink out of fear. 28 You heard that I said to you, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I am. 29 So now I have told you before it occurs, so that you may believe when it does occur. 30 I will not speak with you much more, for the ruler of the world is coming, and he has no hold on me. 31 But for the world to know that I love the Father, I am doing just as the Father has commanded me to do. Get up, let us go from here." (John 14:25 – 31, NWT)

Here, in John chapter 14, Jesus is speaking with some of his disciples. First he speaks with Thomas then he speaks with Judas who is not from Iscariot. Jesus is speaking for his time on earth together with them as we can see this also in John 14:25. He is speaking for the time of his death later and going back to the Father after the Resurrection. He assures them that He loves the father and that He is doing just as the Father has commanded him to do (John 14:31). John 14:28 is right in the middle of his speech: "If you loved me, you would rejoice that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I am." (John 14:28). Does he speak here something about being created? No! The passage shows the relationship between the Father and the Son as the Son obeying the Father and doing all that the Father wills! Jesus being on earth and obeying the will of the Father is less than the Father in authority. The Watchtower reads into the passage something that is not there.

The second text that the book quotes is 1 Corinthians 11:3. Again let us read it in context:

1 Become imitators of me, just as I am of Christ. 2 I commend you because in all things you remember me and you are holding fast the traditions just as I handed them on to you. 3 But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God." (1 Corinthians 11:1 – 3, NWT)

This passage again has to do with authority not with being created or not created! The apostle Paul puts a chain of authority here: God, Christ, man and woman. To make the points clear:

1. Humans are created man and woman (Genesis 1:27).
2. God created Adam first and then Eve.
3. Adam and Eve were of one substance being human.
4. Adam did not create Eve! It was God who created her.

A simple observation of the details in these two verses show us that it is not about who created who as the JW try to tell us. If Paul wanted to speak about the order of creation, according to JW, we should have something like: Jehovah created Jesus, Adam, and Eve. But Paul is not using the word create, Paul uses the word "head". The same way as Adam and Eve are humans it is possible for the Father and the Son Jesus Christ to be of one substance and to eternally coexist.

Lets look now to Genesis 17:1-2:

1 When Aʹbram was 99 years old, Jehovah appeared to Aʹbram and said to him: "I am God Almighty. Walk before me and prove yourself faultless. 2 I will establish my covenant between me and you, and I will multiply you very, very much." (Genesis 17:1-2, NWT)

The words "I am God Almighty" are said to Abraham in the beginning of God's covenant with Him. But we can remember the "Almighty" from the end of the Bible:

"8 I am the Alʹpha and the O·meʹga," says Jehovah God, "the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty." (Revelation 1:8, NWT)

"12 'Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to repay each one according to his work. 13 I am the Alʹpha and the O·meʹga, the first and the last, the beginning and the end." (Revelation 22: 12 – 13)

I will research this two passages later in this document. In Revelation 22:12-13 from the context we understand that Jesus is "Alpha and Omega" but in Revelation 1:8 it is Jehovah. If Jehovah is "Alpha and Omega" and "Almighty" then we should conclude that Jesus is "Almighty"! If He is Almighty He is not created but eternal.

To summarize it briefly now, John 14:28, 1 Corinthians 11:3 and Genesis 17:1 do not make any statement about Jesus being created by the Father. On the contrary. Put in proper context John 14:28 and 1 Corinthians 11:3 show us that the Father and Son are alike and that the Son obeys perfectly the will of the Father. That is why the Father is grater! Genesis 17:1 compared to Revelation 1:8 and 22:12-13 give us the idea the Son is also Almighty!

The Jehovah's Witnesses are right in one thing: "God's Son, Jesus never thought of trying to be God"! I fully agree with this statement! If you are God why should you try to be One?

Summary on Jesus being "the Word"

So why is Jesus called "the Word"? Not because "Jehovah used him to give messages and instructions to angels and humans" as JW book says, but because the Word is a revelation of who God is! This is explained in Hebrews 1:1-3:

1 Long ago God spoke to our forefathers by means of the prophets on many occasions and in many ways. 2 Now at the end of these days he has spoken to us by means of a Son whom he appointed heir of all things and through whom he made the systems of things. 3 He is the reflection of God's glory and the exact representation of his very being and he sustains all things by the word of his power." (Hebrews 1:1-3, NWT)

Jesus, the Son, the Word "is the reflection of God's glory and the exact representation of his very being" (Hebrews 1:3, NWT) and God "has spoken to us by means of a Son" (Hebrews 1:2, NWT). If Jesus, the Son, the Word, would be created as all other things were created, he could by no means be an "exact representation of his very being" because he would miss the very important attribute of being eternal as God is! He would simply be a non-exact representation of God's very being. Thus Son means exact likeness to the Father.

Jesus Christ and His opponents

Lets quote another passage in John's gospel:

22 At that time the Festival of Dedication took place in Jerusalem. It was wintertime, 23 and Jesus was walking in the temple in the colonnade of Solʹo·mon. 24 Then the Jews surrounded him and began to say to him: "How long are you going to keep us in suspense? If you are the Christ, tell us plainly." 25 Jesus answered them: "I told you, and yet you do not believe. The works that I am doing in my Father's name, these bear witness about me. 26 But you do not believe, because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice, and I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them everlasting life, and they will by no means ever be destroyed, and no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 What my Father has given me is something greater than all other things, and no one can snatch them out of the hand of the Father. 30 I and the Father are one." 31 Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him.c 32 Jesus replied to them: "I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?" 33 The Jews answered him: "We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god." 34 Jesus answered them: "Is it not written in your Law, 'I said: "You are gods"'? 35 If he called 'gods' those against whom the word of God came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, 'You blaspheme,' because I said, 'I am God's Son'? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me. 38 But if I am doing them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, so that you may come to know and may continue knowing that the Father is in union with me and I am in union with the Father." 39 So they tried again to seize him, but he escaped from their reach. (John 10:22 – 39, NWT)

As we read the passage from the NWT it looks like Jesus claims to be "a god". The problem is that in the Greek text there is no such thing as "a god"! Let us quote the JW Kingdom Interlinear:

Answer to him the Jews About fine work we are stoning you but about blasphemy, because you man being you are making yourself god
ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ the Ἰουδαῖοι Jews Περὶ καλοῦ fine ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν σεyouἀλλὰ περὶ βλασφημίας , καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σε αυτὸν θεόν. (John 10:33 TKITGS¹⁵)

Why did the translators of the NWT include the "a"? Not because it is in the Greek text of the New Testament but because it suites JW teaching about Jesus being a created "a god". Jesus' enemies understood very much the claims of Jesus as being equal with God. If Jesus claimed only to be the Messiah without being equal to God there was no need for stoning him!

Let us look also John 10:38 from the KI:

but I am doing, and if ever to not YOU may believe the believe YOU, order that YOU should know and YOU may be knowing that in me the Father and in the Father. (John 10:38 KI¹⁶)

Why did the translators of the NWT translate this verse as "the Father is in union with me and I am in union with the Father."? The Interlinear shows that the word "union" is not there in the text! If we let the Greek text speak for itself then we would get exactly the opposite of what Watchtower is trying to teach: "the Father is in me and I am in the Father."

So, let me ask a difficult question. Why does the New World Translation insert words that are not in the text, which change the meaning of the text? If one reads the Interlinear he will make just the opposite conclusion of what JW teach!

And let me ask another difficult question. When NWT and the Interlinear differ which one is the accurate? Look what the foreword to the NWT says:

Recognizing the importance of the Bible's message, we have undertaken the revision of this text with a profound respect for the content of the Bible. We feel the full weight of our responsibility to convey its message accurately. This revised edition has built on the fine foundation laid in previous editions of the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, a Bible that was first released more than 60 years ago. However, the English language has changed during the past half century. Such change prompted current members of the New World Bible Translation Committee to initiate this comprehensive revision. Our goal has been to produce a translation that is not only faithful to the original texts but also clear and easy to read.¹⁷

Let me ask a third difficult question. When you compare the NWT with the KI do you think that the NWT is "faithful to the original texts"? How could the committee miss this additions after 60 years of revision? I leave this question open to you and urge you to read the Scripture from the Interlinear instead of the NWT, if you are a professed Jehovah's witness.

For further reading on NWT: Metzger, Bruce M. The Jehovah's Witnesses and Jesus Christ: A Biblical and Theological Appraisal, In bible-researcher.com, http://www.bible-researcher.com/metzger.jw.html, accessed July 31, 2022

Jesus Christ and Stephen

Stephen became the first martyr who was stoned by the Judeans:

54 Well, at hearing these things, they were infuriated in their hearts and began to grind their teeth at him. 55 But he, being full of holy spirit, gazed into heaven and caught sight of God's glory and of Jesus standing at God's right hand, 56 and he said: "Look! I see the heavens opened up and the Son of man standing at God's right hand." 57 At this they cried out at the top of their voices and put their hands over their ears and rushed at him all together. 58 After throwing him outside the city, they began stoning him. The witnesses laid down their outer garments at the feet of a young man called Saul. 59 As they were stoning Stephen, he made this appeal: "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit." 60 Then, kneeling down, he cried out with a strong voice: "Jehovah, do not charge this sin against them." And after saying this, he fell asleep in death.

A few key point must be made in this passage:

1. Stephen is full of "holy spirit"
2. He sees "Jesus standing at God's right hand"
3. He calls Jesus the Son of man which can be connected with Daniel 7:13
4. He prays to Jesus: "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit." (Acts 7:59)
5. He cries out with a loud voice "Jehovah, do not charge this sin against them" (Acts 7:60)

In this passage we see the three Persons. The Holy Spirit (verse 55), the Father (verse 56) and Jesus Christ (verse 56) at the right of the Father.

Bruce Metzger comments the prayer to Jesus this way:

While Stephen, the first martyr, was being stoned, "he made appeal 14 and said, 'Lord Jesus, receive my spirit'" (Acts 7:59). Here Stephen invoked the Lord Jesus. It is obviously both foolish and sinful to pray to anyone except God. If therefore the opinion of the Jehovah's Witnesses be correct, namely, that Jesus is only a spirit creature, then Stephen was an idolater in praying to one who was not truly God.¹⁸

Now let us comment the cry of Stephen (point 5). Instead of reading Acts 7:60 from the NWT lets read the KI:

Lord, not you should make to stand to them this the sin
Κύριε, μὴ στήσῃς αὐτοῖς ταύτην τὴν ἁμαρτίαν·

What we see is that the translators of the NWT changed the "Κύριε" (Lord) to "Jehovah"! The problem is that in verse 59 "Lord Jesus" is "Κύριε Ἰησοῦ". If one wants to stay true to the Greek text then the person in verse 59 is the same as in verse 60. So this is how KJV translates Acts 7:59 – 60:

59 And they stoned Stephen, calling upon God, and saying, Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.
60 And he kneeled down, and cried with a loud voice, Lord, lay not this sin to their charge. And when he had said this, he fell asleep.

The simple conclusion is that Stephen prayed to Jesus Christ as Lord and it would be an idolatry to pray to one who is not God. We see all three divine Persons in this passage together.

Jesus Christ in the Book of Revelation

John says that his revelation is from Jesus Christ and that revelation was given to Jesus by God. Then the revelation was send to John trough an angel with signs (Revelation 1:1). In Revelation 1:8 it is Jehovah who speaks, according to NWT:

"I am the Alʹpha and the O·meʹga," says Jehovah God, "the One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty." (Revelation 1:8, NWT)

The Alpha is the first letter in the Greek alphabet and the Omega is the last letter. So by saying that He is "Alpha", He says he is the beginning and by saying He is the Omega, He says He is the end. The One who was, who is and who is coming shows that the One is eternal and active. One fact about Jehovah which is important here is that He is the One "who is coming"!

But, in chapter 4 from "What Can the Bible Teach us?" we read:

Jehovah and his Son, Jesus, worked closely together for billions of years before the heavens and the earth were created. They must have loved each other very much! (John 3:35; 14:31) Jesus imitated his father's qualities so well that the Bible calls him "the image of the invisible God."—Colossians 1:15.

So, now I have a question. If Jehovah is invisible (Collosians 1:15), then how can he come? It seems that this coming is to earth and it is in a visible form because it is further explained in Revelation:

12 'Look! I am coming quickly, and the reward I give is with me, to repay each one according to his work. 13 I am the Alʹpha and the O·meʹga, the first and the last, the beginning and the end. 14 Happy are those who wash their robes, so that they may have authority to go to the trees of life and that they may gain entrance into the city through its gates. 15 Outside are the dogs and those who practice spiritism and those who are sexually immoral and the murderers and the idolaters and everyone who loves and practices lying.' 16 'I, Jesus, sent my angel to bear witness to you about these things for the congregations. I am the root and the offspring of David and the bright morning star.' 17 And the spirit and the bride keep on saying, "Come!" and let anyone hearing say, "Come!" and let anyone thirsting come; let anyone who wishes take life's water free. 18 "I am bearing witness to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this scroll: If anyone makes an addition to these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this scroll; 19 and if anyone takes anything away from the words of the scroll of this prophecy, God will take his portion away from the trees of life and out of the holy city, things that are written about in this scroll. 20 "The one who bears witness of these things says, 'Yes, I am coming quickly.'" "Amen! Come, Lord Jesus." 21 May the undeserved kindness of the Lord Jesus be with the holy ones. (Revelation 22:12-21)

By reading this passage of Scripture many questions arise that Jehovah's Witnesses can not answer! First, in verse 12 the "I" is coming quickly and will reward and repay each according to his work. Then in verse 13 the "I" is Alpha and Omega. Is the "I" the same in Revelation 1:8 and in Revelation 22:12 and in Revelation 22:13? What options do we have of interpretation?

First option is to have different persons in each verse:

• Revelation 1:8 is Jehovah, who is "Alpha and Omega" and "One who is and who was and who is coming, the Almighty."
• Revelation 22:12 is Jesus Christ
• Revelation 22:13 is Jehovah again, Alpha and Omega "the first and the last, the beginning and the end".

But when the text of Revelation was written in Greek it did not have verses! It would be very strange for John to change the persons without showing there is a change in the One, who is talking. It would not be a natural way of writing to have "I am" in verse 12 to be one person and then to have another "I am" in verse 13. He could use another construction like "I am" and "He is". But John didn't.

Second option of interpretation is to stay true to the context of the Book of Revelation. It seems that in Revelation 22:12 – 21 only one person speaks and that is the "I" who:

• Is coming quickly (Revelation 22: 12)
• Is Alpha and Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end (Revelation 22:13)
• Is Jesus, who sent his angel and is the offspring of David and the bright morning star (Revelation 22:16)
• Is bearing witness to everyone (Revelation 22:18)

Keeping these 4 points in mind we must interpret Revelation 1:8 in the light of Revelation 22:12-21, because the "I" in Revelation 1:8:

• Is Alpha and Omega
• Is Jehovah God
• Is the One who is and who was
• Is the One who is to come

Jehovah has two characteristics that are repeated in both passages. He is Alpha and Omega and he is to come. The only option of good interpretation we are left is to conclude that Jehovah in Revelation 1:8 is the same as in Revelation 22:12-21. Jesus is Jehovah Himself! By making this simple conclusion by comparing the two passages in Revelation we have to admit that in this case Jesus can not be created and be billions of years old! He must coexist with the Father from eternity and be of the same substance as the Father. He can not be a created "a god" but He is God Himself. This is what the Bible can teach us even through the New World Translation as you can study it for yourself!

Now that does not mean that Jesus and the Father are one Person. It means they are two persons that are both God. In my next section I also argue that the Holy Spirit is a Person. These makes Father, Son and Holy Spirit having one divinity and yet being three divine Persons. This simply makes the case for the Holy Trinity.

Conclusion

Let's take in account all we went trough. We have the witness of the apostle Paul, of apostle John and the author of Hebrews for who Jesus Christ really is. So we base our conclusions on many different authors and books from the Bible.

The Apostle John calls Jesus the "only-begotten" by the Father thus speaking of the Father and the Son as being of one substance. Not only this but Jesus is called the Word that exists together with God in the beginning. Jesus is Alpha and Omega, He is coming and He is Jehovah.

Paul places the Son and the Father on the same plane opposed to all other things of the creation. He calls the Son "firstborn" and calls him also "firstborn of the death" speaking about Him being raised from the death.

The author of Hebrews speaks of the Son as an exact representation of God and as the One by whom God spoke to us.

Nowhere does Scripture say that Jesus Christ, the Son, the Word, was ever created! He is "only-begotten" and "firstborn" but all this words speak of a special connection to God the Father. The only way in which Jesus Christ can be an 'exact representation" of God, be the Son, the Word, is for him to be Jehovah. This way the best Jehovah's witness in the world is Jesus Christ, who is also Jehovah himself and God with a capital "G".

Is the Holy Spirit a Divine Person?

I shall now place another question: Is God Jehovah the Person that is behind the "holy spirit" as an impersonal power of Jehovah? With other words does the Holy Spirit have a separate personality as the God Jehovah and the Son have?

Let me start with a definition for the "holy spirit" by an JW article "What is the Holy Spirit? The Bible's Answer":

The holy spirit is God's power in action, his active force. (Micah 3:8; Luke 1:35) God sends out his spirit by projecting his energy to any place to accomplish his will.—Psalm 104:30; 139:7."

In the Bible, the word "spirit" is translated from the Hebrew word ruʹach and the Greek word pneuʹma. Most often, those words refer to God's active force, or holy spirit. (Genesis 1:2) However, the Bible also uses those words in other senses:
Breath.—Habakkuk 2:19; Revelation 13:15.
Wind.—Genesis 8:1; John 3:8.
The vital, or animating, force in living creatures.—Job 34:14, 15.
A person's disposition or attitude.—Numbers 14:24.
Spirit persons, including God and the angels.—1 Kings 22:21; John 4:24.

These meanings all share the sense of something invisible to humans that produces visible effects. Similarly, the spirit of God, "like the wind, is invisible, immaterial and powerful."—An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words, by W. E. Vine.¹⁹

It is true that the word "spirit" is a translation of the Hebrew word ruʹach ("breath") and the Greek word pneuʹma. And it is true that "breath" and "wind" are used in many other senses. I also agree that they share the sense of "something invisible to humans that produces visible effects". I also agree that the Holy Spirit "like the wind, is invisible, immaterial and powerful", as the dictionary puts it. The problem is that just because something is "invisible, immaterial and powerful" does not mean that it is not a person!

Encyclopedia Britannica gives a short definition of the human personality:

Personality, a characteristic way of thinking, feeling, and behaving. Personality embraces moods, attitudes, and opinions and is most clearly expressed in interactions with other people. It includes behavioral characteristics, both inherent and acquired, that distinguish one person from another and that can be observed in people's relations to the environment and to the social group.²⁰

When a Trinitarian uses the word "person" for God, he means something similar to the human personality but not quite. God does not need a body to be a personality. He is not limited in space or in time. Person is the closest word we can refer to God as he is Someone not something. The term is not perfect, yet we have no other.

So the Holy Spirit can be a "Person" without being visible, material and limited but be "invisible, immaterial and powerful". Let me give two simple examples with the human being.

The first example comes from literature. Right now my hands write the text but it is my personality actually writing the text trough my hands. When we say that a hand wrote a text it is someone's hand that usually we have in mind. This is called a metonymy. By a single part of something the whole is signified. Many times this is the way the Bible refers to God.

The second example is from philosophy. A person is not a force but a person has a force. The force is not what a person is but it is something that a person can have. I can have physical, intellectual and spiritual forces but I am not "the force". So if the Holy Spirit is a Person he can have forces but he is not simply "a force". The Holy Spirit had the force to resurrect Jesus from the dead but He is not "the force" that resurrected Him.

The Spirit as "Hands" or "Fingers"

The article on jw.org continues:

The Bible also refers to God's holy spirit as his "hands" or "fingers." (Psalm 8:3; 19:1; Luke 11:20; compare Matthew 12:28.) Just as a craftsman uses his hands and fingers to do his work, God has used his spirit to produce such results as the following:
The universe.—Psalm 33:6; Isaiah 66:1, 2.
The Bible.—2 Peter 1:20, 21.
The miracles performed by his ancient servants and their zealous preaching.—Luke 4:18; Acts 1:8; 1 Corinthians 12:4-11.
The fine qualities displayed by people who obey him.—Galatians 5:22, 23.

The article's argument here is:

1. The Bible refers to the "holy spirit" as God's "hands" or "fingers"
2. It is an analogy with a craftsman

The article's conclusion: God has used his spirit to produce something.

Based on the same Scriptures I can make another conclusion. The "hands" and the "fingers" are a metonomy and a metaphor for the Holy Spirit. He is the Craftsman signified by the "hands" and "fingers". He is Someone who did something. God did not "use his spirit" as the spirit is some kind of a property of God, as do Jehovah's Witnesses believe. No, God is the Spirit (God Himself) who is spoken of as a Craftsman who has "hands" and "fingers". It is the "hands" and "fingers" that are properties of the Craftsmen NOT the spirit who is "hands" and "fingers". The Spirit is not a mere property of God ("the active force"). He is God Himself who is pictured as a Craftsman who works by his hands and fingers.

Let me use this "method" of Bible interpretation for a psalm. There is a very well know psalm that speaks of Jehovah, who is a Person, as being a refuge, a stronghold and a dwelling. Why do not Jehovah's Witnesses then believe that Jehovah is impersonal? A refuge and a stronghold, and a dwelling are all impersonal things. Lets read together Psalm 91.

Is Jehovah from Psalm 91 a Person?

When you begin to read Psalm 91 you will be amazed to see the same kind of language but used for Jehovah. Here are three portions of Psalm 91:

Anyone dwelling in the secret place of the Most High Will lodge under the shadow of the Almighty. I will say to Jehovah: "You are my refuge and my stronghold, My God in whom I trust." (Psalm 91:1 – 2, NWT)

A "refuge" and a "stronghold" are both impersonal objects that in this context are used by the one writing. If "hands" and "fingers" refer to an impersonal force send by God, then to what do refer "refuge" and "stronghold" here, when it is "Jehovah" to whom the psalmist refers? But just to make the situation worse lets read also other parts of Psalm 91:

With his pinions he will cover you, And under his wings you will take refuge. His faithfulness will be a large shield and a protective wall. (Psalm 91:4, NWT)

Until now the psalm said that Jehovah is a refuge and a stronghold. But now it says that He has pinions and wings. Does that mean that Jehovah is a kind of a bird? Or we can conclude that Jehovah is a refuge and a stronghold with pinions and wings? Isn't this a strange Person? But let's continue:

Because you said: "Jehovah is my refuge," You have made the Most High your dwelling; (Psalm 91:9, NWT)

Now we understand that the same Jehovah who has pinions and wings, also is a refuge and a dwelling. It seems that:

1. The psalmist has a refuge, a stronghold and a dwelling by the name of Jehovah
2. Jehovah has also pinions and wings
3. Jehovah can not be a person because those objects (refuge, stronghold, dwelling) are impersonal

Conclusion: Jehovah is something that is a refuge, a stronghold and a dwelling with pinions and wings, so He can not be a person!

If the "hands" and "fingers" signify an impersonal power ("holy spirit") then what do these words signify? Is Jehovah a Person or a flying refuge, stronghold and dwelling with pinions and wings?

The exegetical mistake here is that we have not considered the genre of the passage! Here the Bible uses a poetic language about God that is metaphorical. All that the psalmist does is to compare the Person of God with objects of this world. And it is not a literal comparison. The words "refuge" and "stronghold" speak of a very personal care towards the psalmist. They mean he can trust God, he can come to God and feel secure. The "pinions" and "wings" are a comparison to a bird that cares for its small ones. Both words speak of God's care. The "dwelling" speaks about being at home with God. Indeed the poetic language understood as poetic language tells us much about the Person of God in a very emotional way! The use of such language does not diminish His Personality in any point.

The use of such kind of language like "hands", "feet", "wind", "breath", "force", "the fine qualities displayed by people who obey him" when referring to the Holy Spirit do neither diminish His Personality!

Why shouldn't we interpret Jehovah's metaphorical language the same way as the Holy Spirit's? I leave this question open to your mind. For me that makes the Spirit not less but more a Person.

To What Did Ananias and Saphiras Lie? (Acts 5:1 - 10)

The statement that the Bible nowhere refers to the Holy Spirit as a person is simply not true. Let's see another key passage from the New World Translation. It is a narrative written by Luke and is not poetry as Psalm 91:

1 However, a man named An·a·niʹas, together with his wife Sap·phiʹra, sold some property. 2 But he secretly held back some of the price, with his wife's knowledge, and he brought just a part of it and deposited it at the feet of the apostles. 3 But Peter said: "An·a·niʹas, why has Satan emboldened you to lie to the holy spirit and secretly hold back some of the price of the field? 4 As long as it remained with you, did it not remain yours? And after it was sold, was it not in your control? Why have you thought up such a deed as this in your heart? You have lied, not to men, but to God." 5 On hearing these words, An·a·niʹas collapsed and died. And great fear came over all those who heard about it. 6 Then the younger men rose, wrapped him in cloths, carried him out, and buried him. (Acts 5:1-6, NWT)

If we believe that the apostle Peter is not a liar then, according to him, it was Satan (a person) who emboldened Ananias to lie to God's active power (impersonal according to JW)! In everyday life people do not talk like this. If really Peter believed that the Holy Spirit is an impersonal power from God why would he do such a strange mistake? It seems Peter did not know that the spirit is a power but made the mistake to believe he was a person! Not only this but Peter says: "You have lied, not to men, but to God." (Acts 5:4, NWT). According to him the Holy Spirit is not just a person but God himself!

What did Speak and Send in Acts 13:1-4?

There is another passage in the Book of Acts that is a problem to the Jehovah's Witnesses belief that the holy spirit is just a "power in action, his active force":

1 Now in Antioch there were prophets and teachers in the local congregation: Barʹna·bas, Symʹe·on who was called Niʹger, Lucius of Cy·reʹne, Manʹa·en who was educated with Herodc the district ruler, and Saul. 2 As they were ministering to Jehovah and fasting, the holy spirit said: "Set aside for me Barʹna·bas and Sauld for the work to which I have called them." 3 Then after fasting and praying, they laid their hands on them and sent them off. 4 So these men, sent out by the holy spirit, went down to Se·leuʹcia, and from there they sailed away to Cyʹprus. (Acts 13: 1 4, NWT)

Seven people were ministering to Jehovah here! But the passage does not say "Jehovah said". It would be very natural for Luke to write "Jehovah said". If the spirit was just a God's active force why would he use "the holy spirit said"? Not just this, but these people were "sent out by the holy spirit". The Holy Spirit says for Barnabas and Paul: "… the work to which I have called them." The Holy Spirit here is the Master! Luke seems to personalize the Holy Spirit here by stating that He speaks and sends! Why would he use such kind of language if the spirit is just God's active force and is not a Person? If Luke misrepresented the spirit as a person why would he do it? Were Peter and Luke so "stupid" that they could not make the difference between a power and a Person?

I shall now continue with the so called "misconceptions about the holy spirit" in the article. The misconceptions are in the doctrine of Watchtower, not in the Bible as we shall see. They put on their Watchtower glasses while reading the Bible.

Misconceptions about the Holy Spirit

The "misconceptions" are numbered according to their appearance in the article.

Misconception 1

Misconception: The "Holy Ghost," or holy spirit, is a person and is part of the Trinity, as stated at 1 John 5: 7, 8 in the King James version of the Bible.

Fact: The King James version of the Bible includes at 1 John 5: 7, 8 the words "in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth." However, researchers have found that those words were not written by the apostle John and so do not belong in the Bible. Professor Bruce M. Metzger wrote: "That these words are spurious and have no right to stand in the New Testament is certain."—A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament.

Professor Bruce M. Metzger is absolutely right when he says that 1 John 5:7 and 8 are spurious. But Bruce Metzger is a Trinitarian! The problem is that there are many other verses about the Trinity which are not doubted. Lets se what Metzger writes:

5. There are many other passages in the New Testament which reveal how deeply the Trinitarian pattern was impressed upon the thinking of primitive Christianity. Thus, besides the direct and obvious statements in Matt. 28:19 and II Cor. 13:14, there are such texts as I Cor. 6:11, 12:4-5; II Cor. 1:21-22; Gal. 3:11-14; I Thess. 5:18-19; I Pet. 1:2; and others. 17 (Because the manuscript evidence of I John 5:7-8, King James Version, is insufficient, this text should not be used. There is, however, abundant proof for the doctrine of the Trinity elsewhere in the New Testament.)²¹

If Jesus is God and not created, the Holy Spirit is God and not just God's active power (an "it") then we can argue for the Holy Trinity.

Misconception 2

Misconception: The Bible personifies the holy spirit, and this proves that it is a person.

Fact: The Scriptures do at times personify the holy spirit, but this does not prove that the holy spirit is a person. The Bible also personifies wisdom, death, and sin. (Proverbs 1:20; Romans 5:17, 21) For example, wisdom is said to have "works" and "children," and sin is depicted as seducing, killing, and working out covetousness.—Matthew 11:19; Luke 7:35; Romans 7:8, 11.

Similarly, when the apostle John quoted Jesus, he personified the holy spirit as a "helper" (paraclete) that would give evidence, guide, speak, hear, declare, glorify, and receive. He used masculine personal pronouns such as "he" or "him" when referring to that "helper." (John 16:7-15) However, he did so because the Greek word for "helper" (pa·raʹkle·tos) is a masculine noun and requires a masculine pronoun according to the rules of Greek grammar. When John referred to the holy spirit using the neuter noun pneuʹma, he used the genderless pronoun "it."—John 14:16, 17.

The case of "wisdom" having "works" and "children" is very different than the case with the gospel of John. Proverbs and Psalms are poetic literature but the gospels are not. The gospels are narrative. So it is really a bad example of mixing the two types of literature in the Bible as we have already seen in the interpretation of Psalm 91.

First of all, why would John use such kind of a language for an active force? Why would John have this strong desire to personify the spirit if he is just an active force? That makes John some kind of a deceiver, just like Luke writing Acts 13:1-4 and Peter saying to Ananias that he has lied to the Spirit and to God. We need to study deeper John 16:12–16. Let's start first with John 16:7:

Nevertheless, I am telling you the truth, it is for your benefit that I am going away. For if I do not go away, the helper will not come to you; but if I do go, I will send him to you. (John 16:7, NWT)

According to John 16:7, Jesus says that if He (Jesus, a person) does not go away then the helper will not come to his disciples. Let me ask then, is the helper a person? It seems that it is not John who personifies the spirit but Jesus himself! He did not say: "God's active force will come to help you". He said: "the helper". Somehow the helper must be equal to Jesus to be of a real help? Would anyone say to someone: "I will send you a helper: my active force"? That would be a very strange language to use? But let us continue:

8 And when that one comes, he will give the world convincing evidence concerning sin and concerning righteousness and concerning judgment: 9 first concerning sin, because they are not exercising faith in me; 10 then concerning righteousness, because I am going to the Father and you will see me no longer; 11 then concerning judgment, because the ruler of this world has been judged. (John 16:8 – 9, NWT)

Can an active force give "convincing evidence concerning sin and concerning righteousness and concerning judgment"? Only a real person can give evidence because in giving evidence there is a cognitive process involved. Giving evidence is an intellectual act.

12 "I still have many things to say to you, but you are not able to bear them now. 13 However, when that one comes, the spirit of the truth, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak of his own initiative, but what he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things to come. 14 That one will glorify me, because he will receive from what is mine and will declare it to you. 15 All the things that the Father has are mine. That is why I said he receives from what is mine and declares it to you. 16 In a little while you will see me no longer, and again, in a little while you will see me." (John 16:12 – 16, NWT)

First of all here is a name of the Holy Spirit. He is called "the spirit of truth". Can an active force guide someone in all the truth? Not only this but the spirit has, according to Jesus, "his own initiative" ("for he will not speak of his own initiative", John 16:13). Can an active force have "his own initiative" or a will with other words? No. But the will of the Spirit is in accordance with the will of Jesus and in accordance with the will of the Father. The Spirit will speak and declare to them the things that come. Someone to be able to "speak" and "declare" he must have cognitive powers. In verse 15 Jesus continues: "All the things that the Father has are mine. That is why I said he receives from what is mine and declares it to you". Here the Spirit receives from Jesus to declare to the disciples. If the Holy Spirit is an active force then we have Jesus (a person) giving a teaching to the holy spirit (impersonal), giving a teaching to the disciples (persons). This makes absolutely no sense.

However, he did so because the Greek word for "helper" (pa·raʹkle·tos) is a masculine noun and requires a masculine pronoun according to the rules of Greek grammar. When John referred to the holy spirit using the neuter noun pneuʹma, he used the genderless pronoun "it."—John 14:16, 17.

The fact is that in the Bible Jehovah is referred as "He", Jesus is referred to as "He" and the Holy Spirit is referred to as "He", as jw.org recognizes about "helper". The fact that the word πνευμα (spirit) is in neuter is a grammatical fact and not a theological. John uses in John 16:13 for the spirit "εκεινος το πνευμα". But "εκεινος" is a demonstrative pronoun that means: "that person or thing (ille), implying remoteness as compared with οὗτος"²² It can be "it" or "he" or "she" depending on the context in English. And the context here is "the Helper" who is masculine in Greek and as we have seen he has to equal to Jesus!

The Bible does not need to personify something ("the holy spirit") who is already a Person! That is simply the wrong conclusion of the Watchtower imposing on the Bible something that is not really there. It is imposing on the biblical writers something unnatural and making them liars, deceivers! If this is the case then the language of the Bible comes just natural. Jesus Christ is a Person and the Holy Spirit is a Person. That is why the Holy Spirit can fully represent Jesus in the life of the apostles and in the life of the believer. He is invisible, powerful, supernatural and yet He works in the world and in the believer.

Misconception 3

Misconception: Baptism in the name of the holy spirit proves that it is a person.

Fact: The Bible sometimes uses "name" to stand for power or authority. (Deuteronomy 18:5, 19-22; Esther 8: 10) This is similar to its use in the English expression "in the name of the law," which does not mean that the law is a person. A person who is baptized "in the name of" the holy spirit recognizes the power and role of the holy spirit in accomplishing God's will.—Matthew 28:19.

Yes, sometimes "name" stands for power or authority. Lets try to read Matthew 28:18-19 according to the interpretation of Jehovah's Witnesses. Here is the text of the NWT:

18 Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying: "All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth. Go, therefore, and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you. And look! I am with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things.

Let us exchange now "holy spirit" with "God's active force". According to the Jehovah's Witnesses Jesus is a creation, or a god, so I will exchange the Son with "a god". We would have something like this: baptizing them in the name of Jehovah and of a god (the son) and of God's active power (the holy spirit). Why would Jesus mean such a thing? Couldn't Jesus just say "in the name of Jehovah" here? It is a very strange way to say something if the doctrine of Watchtower is true!

Let's see the Greek text:

baptizing them [persons] into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit
βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ ἁγίου πνεύματος, Matthew 28:19, KI

First "τὸ ὄνομα" (the name) is in neuter, it is in Accusative and it is singular. Does that mean then that God is neutral and is not a Person? No. It just means the Greek noun for name is neuter. And always in the Bible "The Holy Spirit" is not masculine but neuter. Then "τοῦ Πατρὸς" (the Father) and "τοῦ Υἱοῦ" (the Son) and "τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος" (the Holy Spirit) are all in Genitive, singular.

If "τὸ ὄνομα" (the name) being in neuter does not mean that God is impersonal then why should "τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος" (the Holy Spirit) being in neuter mean that the Holy Spirit is impersonal?

It is really the one name (singular) of the Father (singular, masculine) and of the Son (singular, masculine) and of the Spirit (singular, neuter). All three are persons. Also there are not three names but only one and it is not the name only of the Father but of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. This shows there is a strong connection between the Three. And these are not the words of Matthew but the words of Jesus himself!

Now why would Jesus put Father, Son and Spirit together if the Son is created and the Spirit is just an impersonal power? It would make no sense unless someone wants to see in this text something that is not there!

Misconception 4

Misconception: Jesus' apostles and other early disciples believed that the holy spirit was a person.

Fact: The Bible does not say that, nor does history. The Encyclopædia Britannica states: "The definition that the Holy Spirit was a distinct divine Person . . . came at the Council of Constantinople in ad 381." This was over 250 years after the last of the apostles had died.

The theological definition about the Holy Spirit was made 250 years after the last apostle died but we have seen from the Bible, Jehovah's Witnesses own NWT, that Peter, Luke, John, Jesus and Matthew all referred to the Holy Spirit as Someone not as something. The fact that something is defined some 250 years later does not mean it is not in the Bible. If you study carefully the Bible it is not very hard to see that the Holy Spirit is a person.

Conclusion

Let's take in account all we went trough:

1. Peter the apostle referred to the Holy Spirit as "the spirit the holy" / "τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον" (Acts 5:3, KI) which is neuter but then "τῷ θεῷ" (the God, Acts 5,4, KI) which is masculine. The Holy Spirit is Someone you can lie to and He is God!
2. John the apostle referred to the Holy Spirit as "he" and as "helper". The Holy Spirit is referred to as Someone who helps, speaks, declares, convinces, guides … and has a will and a cognitive power.
3. Jesus and Matthew referred to the Father, Son and Holy Spirit together in which name (of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit) someone must be baptized. It is strange to be baptized in the name of "a god" and a "something"!

What we see in the Bible is that the noun for spirit is neuter. This is simply a grammatical construction. But Peter, Luke, John, Jesus and Matthew "personify" the Spirit. The only good explanation is that the Holy Spirit is really a Person and that the Bible does not "personify" Him because he already is a Person! The biblical authors use natural, normal Greek. They don't use some language with hidden meanings which were not understandable by fellow people. The church fathers at Constantinople just simply analyzed the biblical evidence and came to this simple conclusion to which the eyes of Jehovah's Witnesses are closed today.

Final Conclusion: Is the Holy Trinity a Biblical Doctrine?

Let me answer the question with a question: How do JW know that "Jehovah and his Son, Jesus, worked closely together for billions of years before the heavens and the earth were created"?

The age of Jesus is never stated in the Bible, but JW say they believe he is billions of years old! How did they get to this non-Biblical conclusion? If you say that you base your teaching on the Bible then this is a point in which they don't use the Bible at all. The same way "Holy Trinity" is never mentioned as a biblical term but we can use it as a term of theological significance to state our faith clearly.

JW ask us "Why should you care?" then they quote John 4:23:

"The true worshipers will worship the Father with . . . truth." (John 4:23) That truth has been recorded in the Bible. (John 17:17) Does the Bible teach that the Father, the Son, and the holy spirit are three persons in one God?

For me the Bible definitely teaches that "the Father, the Son, and the holy spirit are three persons in one God". As we have seen what the Bible tells us for the divinity of Jesus Christ and the divinity and person of the Holy Spirit, let us see one biblical passage which mention the persons together. The apostle Peter seem to put it this way:

Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the temporary residents scattered about in Ponʹtus, Ga·laʹti·a, Cap·pa·doʹci·a,b Asia, and Bi·thynʹi·a, to those chosen 2 according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, with sanctification by the spirit, for the purpose of being obedient and sprinkled with the blood of Jesus Christ: May undeserved kindness and peace be increased to you. (1 Peter 1:1 – 2, NWT)

Here Peter speaks of the foreknowledge of the Father, the sanctification of the Spirit and that the believers in Pontus are obedient and sprinkled with the blood of Jesus Christ. If Jesus was a created being and the spirit an impersonal power then how could the spirit sanctify the believer and how could the blood of "a god" have such a power to cleanse from sin? There are many other passages in which all three divine persons are mentioned together. Someone must carefully examine the Greek text of the New Testament before he draws conclusions on the doctrine of the Trinity!

As I read the NWT I admit that for me the Father is God, the Son is God and the Holy Spirit is God, so I can be sure that I am a true worshiper. The Bible does not use the word "Trinity" but it definitely speaks of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit all together being one God.